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Topic: The Father handed all things over to him (4 Posts)

Message: The Father handed all things over to him
Posted by [tmoore1008] on Tuesday, 03-Apr-2007 02:48:50 EDT Revised by [tmoore1008] on Friday, 07-Sep-2007 20:34:06 EDT Revised by [tmoore1008] on Friday, 07-Sep-2007 21:46:00 EDT
Who is "him"? And the devil had already put into the heart of Judas Iscariot, Simon’s son, that he should betray Jesus. [John 13:2b NET] τοῦ διαβόλου ἤδη βεβληκότος εἰς τὴν καρδίαν { Ἰούδα Σίμωνος Ἰσκαριώτου ἵνα αὐτὸν παραδῷ ♦ ἵνα παραδοῖ αὐτὸν Ἰούδας Σίμωνος Ἰσκαριώτου }, Because Jesus knew that the Father had handed all things over to him (or, had given all things into his hands), and that he had come from God and was going back to God..." [John 13:3 NET]. εἰδὼς { ὁ Ἰησοῦς ♦ - } ὅτι πάντα { δέδωκεν ♦ ἔδωκεν } αὐτῷ ὁ πατὴρ εἰς τὰς χεῖρας, καὶ ὅτι ἀπὸ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθεν καὶ πρὸς τὸν θεὸν ὑπάγει, Can "him" [αὐτῷ] be Judas, and "all things" [πάντα] be the course of events (i.e., "all things concerning Jesus' fate")? To wit: "Knowing that the father had put all things (that is, the course of events) into the hands (of Judas), and that (consequently) from God he (Jesus) came and toward God he goes..."?
Message: Re: The Father handed all things over to him
Posted by Ian W. Scott on Tuesday, 31-Mar-2009 11:20:45 EDT
It's unlikely that "him" (auton) is anyone other than Jesus, for a couple of reasons. First, with pronouns the antecedent is usually the closest previous person/thing mentioned that agrees grammatically with the pronoun. In this case the pronoun is masculine singular, and the closest previous masculine singular entity mentioned is Jesus (it can't be the Father, since that would usually require a reflexive pronoun). Second, John emphasizes in many places Jesus' sovereignty (under the Father) over events, even the events of the passion. At the arrest in Gethsemane, for example, Jesus is shown taking the initiative, telling the guards to come and arrest him. In this thematic context, it is unlikely that John would say "all things" had been given to Judas. It is perfectly in keeping, though, to say that "all things" had been placed within Jesus' control.
Message: Re: The Father handed all things over to him
Posted by anonymous on Sunday, 03-Apr-2011 02:18:48 EDT
Also the verb in the next phrase has Jesus as the implicit subject, so there is no reason to suppose that "him" in the previous verse refers to anyone else.
Message: Re: The Father handed all things over to him
Posted by Elissa Grace on Friday, 10-Apr-2020 00:26:52 EDT
we have tons of other Scriptures that tell us ALL things have been given to Jesus: Matt. 11:27; John 5:20–23; 17:2; Acts 2:36; 1 Cor. 15:27; [Heb. 2:8] Isaiah 45:23, Romans 14:11, Phil 2:10, Hebrews 1:13, Hebrews 10:13, Isaiah 9:6,