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Re: The Father handed all things over to him

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It's unlikely that "him" (auton) is anyone other than Jesus, for a couple of reasons. First, with pronouns the antecedent is usually the closest previous person/thing mentioned that agrees grammatically with the pronoun. In this case the pronoun is masculine singular, and the closest previous masculine singular entity mentioned is Jesus (it can't be the Father, since that would usually require a reflexive pronoun).

Second, John emphasizes in many places Jesus' sovereignty (under the Father) over events, even the events of the passion. At the arrest in Gethsemane, for example, Jesus is shown taking the initiative, telling the guards to come and arrest him. In this thematic context, it is unlikely that John would say "all things" had been given to Judas. It is perfectly in keeping, though, to say that "all things" had been placed within Jesus' control.