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Re: John 1:1 "a god"?

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For thorough discussions of this topic I would recommend searching the B-Greek archives (e.g. Google "john 1:1 site:ibiblio.org").

This is a pretty good summation found in one of the threads:

There is nothing in the grammar itself that invalidates "The Word was a 
god" as a translation. It is other factors in the context that will have to 
determine whether this is a legitimate understanding of the clause.

http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/test-archives/html4/1997-09/index.html#20978