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lawless hands

Posted by anonymous on Thursday, 14-Apr-2011 14:36:24 EDT

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why "have taken by the hands of lawless men" rather than "have taken" or "took" "by lawless hands.".  The latter seems more literal; the former seems to interpret "lawless" as a reference to people, but the word order and the thrust of the sentence indicates that "lawless" is an adjective modifying "hands".